Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Steady Rolling's avatar

People seem to have adopted as rote that a "false bookkeeping entry" was made. Perhaps it's more proof that propaganda works.

However, how is it illegal to use a drop down menu in commercial software to notate in a private company's general ledger as a "legal expense" a perfectly legal payment to a lawyer?

What law did this notation violate?

Further, what law, i.e., statute, regulation, or precedent, specifies what the notation should have been?

Likewise, since this claim is akin to a perjury claim, oughtn't there be some requirement that the government prove that the alleged falsehood was material?

More importantly, what evidence was adduced to prove this supposed crime?

As far as I can tell, the premise of this case is defective.

In addition, it is mind-boggling that ONE entry can be puffed up into thirty-four counts. At some point, this has to be a legal redundancy of no moment.

Expand full comment
Douglas Gersh's avatar

I had the same thought…it was a Stalinist show trial. America has nothing resembling a justice department and the courts are under party control!

Expand full comment
51 more comments...

No posts